Download Palo Alto Networks.PCCET.NewDumps.2023-08-07.43q.vcex

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Exam Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-Level Technician
Number PCCET
File Name Palo Alto Networks.PCCET.NewDumps.2023-08-07.43q.vcex
Size 749 KB
Posted Aug 07, 2023
Download Palo Alto Networks.PCCET.NewDumps.2023-08-07.43q.vcex

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Demo Questions

Question 1

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?


  1. SaaS
  2. DaaS
  3. PaaS
  4. IaaS
Correct answer: D



Question 2

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?


  1. User-ID
  2. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
  3. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
  4. Identity and Access Management (IAM)
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.
Identity and access management (IAM) is a software service or framework that allows organizations to define user or group identities within software environments, then associate permissions with them. The identities and permissions are usually spelled out in a text file, which is referred to as an IAM policy.



Question 3

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?


  1. the network is large
  2. the network is small
  3. the network has low bandwidth requirements
  4. the network needs backup routes
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can’t be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can’t be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that’s used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn’t broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).
A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can’t be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can’t be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that’s used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn’t broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).



Question 4

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?


  1. exploitation
  2. actions on the objective
  3. command and control
  4. installation
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Command and Control: Attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to command-and-control (C2) servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods as additional targets of opportunity are identified within the victim network, or to evade any new security countermeasures that the organization may attempt to deploy if attack artifacts are discovered.
Command and Control: Attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to command-and-control (C2) servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods as additional targets of opportunity are identified within the victim network, or to evade any new security countermeasures that the organization may attempt to deploy if attack artifacts are discovered.



Question 5

Which statement describes DevOps?


  1. DevOps is its own separate team
  2. DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
  3. DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams
  4. DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
DevOps is not:A combination of the Dev and Ops teams: There still are two teams; they just operate in a communicative, collaborative way.Its own separate team: There is no such thing as a “DevOps engineer.” Although some companies may appoint a “DevOps team” as a pilot when trying to transition to a DevOps culture, DevOps refers to a culture where developers, testers, and operations personnel cooperate throughout the entire software delivery lifecycle. A tool or set of tools: Although there are tools that work well with a DevOps model or help promote DevOps culture, DevOps ultimately is a strategy, not a tool.Automation: Although automation is very important for a DevOps culture, it alone does not define DevOps.
DevOps is not:
A combination of the Dev and Ops teams: There still are two teams; they just operate in a communicative, collaborative way.
Its own separate team: There is no such thing as a “DevOps engineer.” Although some companies may appoint a “DevOps team” as a pilot when trying to transition to a DevOps culture, DevOps refers to a culture where developers, testers, and operations 
personnel cooperate throughout the entire software delivery lifecycle. 
A tool or set of tools: Although there are tools that work well with a DevOps model or help promote DevOps culture, DevOps ultimately is a strategy, not a tool.
Automation: Although automation is very important for a DevOps culture, it alone does not define DevOps.



Question 6

A native hypervisor runs:


  1. with extreme demands on network throughput
  2. only on certain platforms
  3. within an operating system’s environment
  4. directly on the host computer’s hardware
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Type 1 (native or bare metal). Runs directly on the host computer’s hardware Type 2 (hosted). Runs within an operating system environment
Type 1 (native or bare metal). Runs directly on the host computer’s hardware Type 2 (hosted). Runs within an operating system environment



Question 7

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability. 


Correct answer: To work with this question, an Exam Simulator is required.
Explanation:
Reduce the attack surface: Best-of-breed technologies that are natively integrated provide a prevention architecture that inherently reduces the attack surface. This type of architecture allows organizations to exert positive control based on applications, users, and content, with support for open communication, orchestration, and visibility. Prevent all known threats, fast: A coordinated security platform accounts for the full scope of an attack across the various security controls that compose the security posture, thus enabling organizations to quickly identify and block known threats. Detect and prevent new, unknown threats with automation: Security that simply detects threats and requires a manual response is too little, too late. Automated creation and delivery of near-real-time protections against new threats to the various security solutions in the organization’s environments enable dynamic policy updates. These updates are designed to allow enterprises to scale defenses with technology, rather than people.
Reduce the attack surface: Best-of-breed technologies that are natively integrated provide a prevention architecture that inherently reduces the attack surface. This type of architecture allows organizations to exert positive control based on applications, users, and content, with support for open communication, orchestration, and visibility. 
Prevent all known threats, fast: A coordinated security platform accounts for the full scope of an attack across the various security controls that compose the security posture, thus enabling organizations to quickly identify and block known threats. 
Detect and prevent new, unknown threats with automation: Security that simply detects threats and requires a manual response is too little, too late. Automated creation and 
delivery of near-real-time protections against new threats to the various security solutions in the organization’s environments enable dynamic policy updates. 
These updates are designed to allow enterprises to scale defenses with technology, rather than people.



Question 8

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?


  1. prevent bots from communicating with the C2
  2. install openvas software on endpoints
  3. use LDAP as a directory service
  4. block Docker engine software on endpoints
Correct answer: A



Question 9

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?


  1. weaponization
  2. reconnaissance
  3. exploitation
  4. delivery
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."



Question 10

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?


  1. VPN Concentrator
  2. Content Identification
  3. Segmentation Platform
  4. Web Application Zone
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a “pocket of trust” where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."
"Remember that a trust zone is not intended to be a “pocket of trust” where systems (and therefore threats) within the zone can communicate freely and directly with each other. For a full Zero Trust implementation, the network would be configured to ensure that all communications traffic, including traffic between devices in the same zone, is intermediated by the corresponding Zero Trust Segmentation Platform."









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